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PLAINTIFF’S DECEDENT’S LAWSUIT AGAINST DEFENDANT NURSING HOME, WHICH APPARENTLY ALLEGED, AMONG OTHER THINGS, THAT PLAINTIFF’S DECEDENT WAS NEGLIGENTLY EXPOSED TO COVID-19, WAS NOT PRECLUDED BY THE “EMERGENCY OR DISASTER TREATMENT PROTECTION ACT” OR THE “FEDERAL PUBLIC READINESS AND EMERGENCY ACT” (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing Supreme Court, determined the wrongful death complaint, which apparently alleged, among other things, decedent was negligently exposed to COVID-19 in defendant nursing home, should not have been dismissed. The Fourth Department held that the defendants submissions did not demonstrate the COVID-19-releated immunity provided by the Emergency or Disaster Treatment Protection Act (EDTPA) (Public Health Law former art 30-D, §§ 3080-3082) and the Federal Public Readiness and Emergency Preparedness Act (PREP Act) (42 USC § 247d-6d) precluded the lawsuit:

… [D]efendants’ submission of the affidavit of Robert G. Hurlbut, the administrator of the facility during the relevant time period, does not conclusively establish that the act or omission constituting defendants’ alleged negligence occurred in the course of arranging for or providing health care services, and it likewise does not conclusively establish that the treatment of decedent was impacted by the health care facility’s or health care professionals’ decisions or activities in response to or resulting from the COVID-19 outbreak … . We therefore conclude that defendants’ submissions did not conclusively establish the three requirements for immunity under the EDTPA … . …

With respect to the PREP Act * * * plaintiff alleged … that defendants failed to properly sterilize equipment to prevent the spread of infection, failed to follow their own infection control practices, and failed to maintain and utilize the proper personal protective equipment as required by federal law. Plaintiff further alleged that decedent suffered a range of injuries from defendants’ negligence, including pressure ulcers, head injuries, and lacerations, in addition to the contraction of COVID-19. Defendants’ submissions failed to establish that decedent’s injuries arose from the use of an approved countermeasure under the PREP Act … . Sweatman v The Hurlbut, 2025 NY Slip Op 02522, Fourth Dept 4-25-25

Practice Point: In the context of a motion to dismiss the complaint, which apparently alleged, among other things, that plaintiff’s decedent was negligently exposed to COVID-19 in defendant nursing home, the immunity provided by the Emergency or Disaster Treatment Protection Act (EDTPA) (Public Health Law former art 30-D, §§ 3080-3082) and the Federal Public Readiness and Emergency Preparedness Act (PREP Act) (42 USC § 247d-6d) was not demonstrated to preclude the lawsuit.

 

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AT THE TIME OF THE COLLISION, THE SHERIFF’S DEPUTY WAS ENGAGED IN AN EMERGENCY OPERATION AND DID NOT ACT WITH RECKLESS DISREGARD FOR THE SAFETY OF OTHERS; TWO-JUSTICE DISSENT (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, affirming Supreme Court, over a two-justice dissent, determined the police vehicle (driven by Deputy Fong) which collided with plaintiff’s vehicle was engaged in an emergency operation and was not being operated in reckless disregard for the safety of others. The dissenters argued there was a question of fact on the “reckless disregard” issue:​

… [I]t is undisputed that the reckless disregard standard of care applies because Fong was driving an emergency vehicle and was engaged in an emergency operation at the time she proceeded through the red traffic signal (see Vehicle and Traffic Law § 1104 [b] [2]). In addition, defendants established that Fong’s conduct did not rise to a level of reckless disregard for the safety of others. Defendants’ submissions established, in particular, that Fong took several precautions before proceeding into the intersection against the red traffic signal, including bringing her vehicle to a complete stop, looking in all directions, activating her emergency lights, and proceeding slowly into the intersection … . Granath v Monroe County, 2025 NY Slip Op 02521, Fourth Dept 4-25-25

 

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MOTHER’S ALLEGATIONS OF CHANGES IN CIRCUMSTANCES WERE SUFFICIENT TO WARRANT A HEARING ON HER CUSTODY PETITION; MATTER REMITTED (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing Family Court, determined mother’s custody petition should not have been summarily dismissed without a hearing:

“A hearing is not automatically required whenever a parent seeks modification of a custody [or visitation] order” … . Rather, “[t]he petitioner must make a sufficient evidentiary showing of a change in circumstances to require a hearing on the issue whether the existing custody [and visitation] order should be modified” … . “In order to survive a motion to dismiss and warrant a hearing, a petition seeking to modify a prior order of custody and visitation must contain factual allegations of a change in circumstances warranting modification to ensure the best interests of the child” … . “When faced with such a motion, ‘the court must give the pleading a liberal construction, accept the facts alleged therein as true, accord the nonmoving party the benefit of every favorable inference, and determine only whether the facts fit within a cognizable legal theory’ ” … .

… The mother alleged that the father had repeatedly and consistently neglected to exercise his right to supervised visitation and had not seen or spoken with the children in over two years … .

… The mother further alleged that, subsequent to entry of the prior order, the older child newly disclosed that, in addition to the previously known sexual abuse to which he and the younger child had been subjected by their paternal uncle at the father’s home, the father too had sexually abused him.

… [T]he mother adequately alleged a change in circumstances based on information—which she received directly from child protective services personnel from the county where the father resides—that the father and his paramour had engaged in conduct that led to the removal of the father’s other children from his care … . Matter of Catherine M.C. v Matthew P.C., 2025 NY Slip Op 02480, Fourth Dept 4-25-25

Practice Point: The most common basis for a Family-Court reversal is the failure to hold a hearing.

 

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THE JUDGE SUMMARILY DENIED DEFENDANT’S REQUEST TO REPRESENT HIMSELF WITHOUT CONDUCTING THE MANDATORY “SEARCHING INQUIRY;” NEW TRIAL ORDERED (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, ordering a new trial, determined defendant’s request to proceed pro se was summarily denied without the required “searching inquiry:”

It is well established that a defendant in a criminal case may invoke the right to proceed pro se provided that “(1) the request is unequivocal and timely asserted, (2) there has been a knowing and intelligent waiver of the right to counsel, and (3) the defendant has not engaged in conduct which would prevent the fair and orderly exposition of the issues” … . Here, the record establishes that defendant requested to represent himself before the start of trial, stating: “I would like to go pro se, and I would like to bring something to the [c]ourt’s attention if I may, your Honor.” The court initially ignored the request, but defense counsel raised the issue twice more, causing the court to tell defendant: “We are not going to address the issue of pro se. You are here with [defense counsel],” whom the court described as “one of the most experienced defense attorneys in town.” Given that the court “recognized defendant as having unequivocally requested to proceed pro se,” it was then required to conduct a “searching inquiry to ensure that . . . defendant’s waiver [of the right to counsel was] knowing, intelligent, and voluntary” … . People v Taylor, 2025 NY Slip Op 02473, Fourth Dept 4-25-25

Practice Point: Once a judge recognizes a defendant has unequivocally requested to represent himself, the judge is required to make a “searching inquiry” to ensure defendant’s waiver of counsel is knowing, intelligent and voluntary. The failure to conduct the inquiry requires reversal.

 

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HERE THE EVIDENCE WAS PURELY CIRCUMSTANTIAL; DEFENDANT’S REQUEST FOR A CIRCUMSTANTIAL-EVIDENCE JURY INSTRUCTION SHOULD HAVE BEEN GRANTED; NEW TRIAL ORDERED ON THE MURDER AND ATTEMPTED MURDER CHARGES (FOURTH DEPT). ​

The Fourth Department, ordering a new trial on the murder and attempted murder charges, determined the judge should have given the circumstantial-evidence jury instruction:

“[A] trial court must grant a defendant’s request for a circumstantial evidence charge when the proof of the defendant’s guilt rests solely on circumstantial evidence . . . By contrast, where there is both direct and circumstantial evidence of the defendant’s guilt, such a charge need not be given” … .

The People argue that certain statements made by defendant provided some direct evidence of defendant’s guilt of those charges. A defendant’s “statement[s are] direct evidence only if [they] constitute a relevant admission of guilt” … . Here, we conclude that the statements identified by the People were not admissions of guilt; rather, because they “merely includ[ed] inculpatory acts from which a jury may or may not infer guilt, the statement[s were] circumstantial and not direct evidence” … . The People thus failed to present ” ‘both direct and circumstantial evidence of . . . defendant’s guilt’ ” that would have negated the need for a circumstantial evidence charge … . People v Rodriguez, 2025 NY Slip Op 02454, Fourth Dept 4-25-25

Practice Point: Where the evidence against a defendant is both circumstantial and direct, a request for a circumstantial-evidence jury instruction is properly denied. Where the evidence is purely circumstantial, the request must be granted.​

Practice Point: A defendant’s statements are direct evidence only if they constitute an admission of guilt. Where, as here, the statements include inculpatory acts from which guilt can be inferred the statements constitute circumstantial evidence.

 

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THE “ALLEGEDLY INCAPACITATED PERSON” (AIP) WAS NOT PRESENT FOR THE MENTAL HYGIENE LAW GUARDIANSHIP HEARING; THE AIP’S ATTORNEY CANNOT CONSENT TO THE APPOINTMENT OF A GUARDIAN IF THE AIP IS NOT PRESENT; MATTER REMITTED (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing Supreme Court, determined the absence of the allegedly incapacitated person (AIP) from the proceeding to appoint a guardian pursuant to the Mental Hygiene Law required remittal:

“Guardianship proceedings, as a drastic intervention in a person’s liberty, must adhere to proper procedural standards” … . Pursuant to Mental Hygiene Law § 81.11, where a petition to have a guardian appointed for an AIP has been filed … , “[a] determination that the appointment of a guardian is necessary for a person alleged to be incapacitated shall be made only after a hearing” … . Any party to the proceeding “shall” have the right to present evidence, call witnesses, cross-examine witnesses and be represented by counsel … .

Most importantly, “[t]he hearing must be conducted in the presence of the person alleged to be incapacitated, either at the courthouse or where the person alleged to be incapacitated resides” … , unless the person is outside the state or “all the information before the court clearly establishes that (i) the person alleged to be incapacitated is completely unable to participate in the hearing or (ii) no meaningful participation will result from the person’s presence at the hearing” … . “There is an ‘overarching value in a court having the opportunity to observe, firsthand, the allegedly incapacitated person’ ” … .

Here, the court did not conduct a hearing in the presence of the AIP. Although the court evaluator informed the court that “[a]ll of the parties here right now agree that the AIP needs a guardian,” it is unclear whether that statement by the court evaluator constitutes an agreement by the AIP’s attorney to the court’s determination to appoint a guardian for all of the AIP’s person and property. Regardless, even if we were to deem this a situation where the AIP’s attorney agreed that the AIP consented to the appointment, “a court should not accept counsel’s representation that the AIP has consented to the appointment of a guardian where the AIP is not present” … . “[T]he court must first determine whether the AIP has the requisite capacity to consent, and must then make a finding of the AIP’s agreement to the terms of the guardianship, on the record” … . Matter of Chang v Billie J.C.-W., 2025 NY Slip Op 02446, Fourth Dept 4-25-25

Practice Point: A Mental Hygiene Law guardianship hearing must be held in the presence of the allegedly incapacitated person (AIP) absent proof the AIP cannot meaningfully participate. The judge should be able to observe the AIP.

Practice Point: The AIP’s attorney cannot consent to the appointment of a guardian in the AIP’s absence.

 

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FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH THE EMPLOYER’S DIRECTIVE TO TAKE THE COVID-19 VACCINE JUSTIFIED THE TERMINATION OF PETITIONER’S EMPLOYMENT; THE ARBITRATOR’S RULING TO THAT EFFECT DID NOT VIOLATE PUBLIC POLICY AND WAS NOT IRRATIONAL (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing Supreme Court, affirmed the arbitrator’s determination petitioner was properly terminated because she refused the COVID-19 vaccine:

… [T]he court “erred in vacating the award on the ground that it was against public policy because petitioners failed to meet their heavy burden to establish that the award in this employer-employee dispute violated public policy” … . We further agree with respondents that the court “erred in vacating the award on the ground that it was irrational” … . ” ‘An award is irrational if there is no proof whatever to justify the award’ … . Where, however, “an arbitrator ‘offer[s] even a barely colorable justification for the outcome reached,’ the arbitration award must be upheld” … . Here, inasmuch as it is undisputed that [the employer] directed petitioner to receive the vaccine by a date certain, that it apprised her that her continued employment was dependent upon her compliance, and that petitioner refused to be vaccinated by the required date, the court erred in concluding that the arbitrator’s award was irrational … . Further, the court was not permitted to vacate the award merely because it believed vacatur would better serve the interest of justice … . Matter of Cooper (Roswell Park Comprehensive Cancer Ctr., 2025 NY Slip Op 02445, Fourth Dept 4-25-25

Practice Point: The arbitrator’s determination petitioner was properly terminated for refusing a COVID-19 vaccination did not violate public policy and was not irrational.

 

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THE FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH THE CONDITIONS PRECEDENT IN CPLR 3216 PRECLUDED DISMSSAL OF THE COMPLAINT (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing Supreme Court, determined the failure to comply with the requirements of CPLR 3216 precluded the dismissal of the complaint:

… [A]bsent strict compliance with the conditions precedent to dismissal set forth in CPLR 3216 (b) (3), “[n]o dismissal shall be directed” … . Indeed, “[t]he conditions precedent to bringing a motion to dismiss for failure to prosecute under CPLR 3216 must be complied with strictly” … .

Among those conditions precedent are the service of a ninety-day demand to resume prosecution, by registered or certified mail, which specifically states that the failure to file the note of issue within ninety days will serve as a basis for a motion to dismiss for want of prosecution … . Where the ninety-day demand is served by the court, the demand shall also “set forth the specific conduct constituting the neglect, which conduct shall demonstrate a general pattern of delay in proceeding with the litigation” … .

Here, the court did not serve a ninety-day demand upon plaintiff, and for that reason alone, the court erred in directing dismissal pursuant to CPLR 3216. Even assuming, arguendo, that the court’s second supplemental scheduling order could serve as the substitute for a ninety-day demand, that scheduling order did not indicate that dismissal would result if plaintiff failed to file the note of issue, nor did it set forth the specific conduct constituting plaintiff’s neglect … . “While an order may have the same effect as a valid 90-day demand, that order must advise as to the consequences for failing to comply, i.e., dismissal of the complaint” … , and here, the order wholly failed to do so. Woloszuk v Logan-Young, 2025 NY Slip Op 02444, Fourth Dept 4-25-25

Practice Point: The conditions precedent for dismissal of a complaint in CPRL 3216 must be strictly complied with by the judge or reversal is mandatory.

 

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ALTHOUGH ALL JUSTICES AGREED THE CERTIFICATE OF COMPLIANCE WAS NOT ILLUSORY, THE CONCURRENCE ARGUED THE PEOPLE SHOULD HAVE ASCERTAINED THE NAMES OF WITNESSES CAPTURED ON A VIDEO (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department determined the People’s certificate of compliance (COC) was not illusory and, therefore, the speedy trial statute was not violated. The concurrence agreed the COC was not illusory, but argued the People should have ascertained and turned over the names of witnesses which were depicted in a video:

… [W]ith respect to defendant’s claim that the People failed to turn over the names and contact information of several witnesses who were depicted on surveillance footage inside the convenience store when defendant was arrested, CPL 245.20 (1) (c) provides in relevant part that the People are required to disclose “[t]he names and adequate contact information for all persons other than law enforcement personnel whom the prosecutor knows to have evidence or information relevant to any offense charged or to any potential defense thereto.” The People are not, however, required “to ascertain the existence of witnesses not known to the police or another law enforcement agency” … . The record shows that the People did not know or have in their possession the names of those witnesses with the exception of one witness whose name they learned just prior to the scheduled trial. The court thus properly determined that the People exercised due diligence and made reasonable efforts to ascertain the existence of the discovery materials … .

From the concurrence (Justice Whalen):

I respectfully disagree with the majority’s conclusion that the People had no obligation to make reasonable inquiries to ascertain the names and contact information of several witnesses who were depicted on surveillance footage inside the convenience store when defendant was arrested. Although the People are not required to “ascertain the existence of witnesses” not known to law enforcement … , here the record establishes that, at the time their discovery obligation under CPL article 245 arose, the People possessed knowledge that several of the witnesses depicted on the surveillance footage had “evidence or information relevant to any offense charged” … . Specifically, the People possessed the statements of the store owner and the victim, as well as the police report from the arresting officer, each of which reflects that just prior to defendant’s arrest, the depicted store employees tackled defendant to the ground, locked the door, and waited for police to arrive. Inasmuch as there is no plausible argument that the store employees who held defendant down after an attempted robbery did not “have evidence or information relevant to any offense charged” … , the People were obligated to “make a diligent, good faith effort to ascertain” … the “names and adequate contact information for [those] persons” … . In my opinion, the majority, in concluding otherwise, is conflating the statutory requirement that the People possess knowledge of the “existence of witnesses” … with knowledge of the names of witnesses. People v Burrows, 2025 NY Slip Op 02436, Fourth Dept 4-25-25

Practice Point: The concurrence argued the majority conflated the fact that the People need not ascertain the existence of witnesses they are not aware of with the obligation to ascertain the names of witnesses of which the People are aware.

 

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CONFLICTING EVIDENCE RAISED QUESTIONS OF FACT IN THIS “NEGLIGENT USE OF EXCESSIVE FORCE,” “FALSE ARREST,” AND “UNLAWFUL IMPRISONMENT” ACTION STEMMING FROM THE STREET STOP, SHOOTING AND ARREST OF THE PLAINTIFF; THE DEFENDANT TRANSIT AUTHORITY’S MOTION FOR SUMMARY JUDGMENT SHOULD NOT HAVE BEEN GRANTED (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing Supreme Court, determined conflicting evidence precluded summary judgment in this civil action stemming from the street stop and arrest of the plaintiff. Although plaintiff pled guilty, which usually forecloses any argument that the arrest was not supported by probable cause, here evidence submitted the defendant transit authority raised a question of fact about probable cause. The action alleged the negligent use of excessive force (plaintiff was shot through the windshield of his vehicle), false arrest and unlawful imprisonment:

Excessive force claims are evaluated ” ‘under the Fourth Amendment’s “objective reasonableness” standard’ ” … . * * *

“Because of its intensely factual nature, the question of whether the use of force was reasonable under the circumstances is generally best left for a jury to decide” … .

” ‘The fact that a person whom a police officer attempts to arrest resists, threatens, or assaults the officer no doubt justifies the officer’s use of some degree of force, but it does not give the officer license to use force without limit. The force used by the officer must be reasonably related to the nature of the resistance and the force used, threatened, or reasonably perceived to be threatened, against the officer’ ” … . …

Though “[t]he existence of probable cause serves as a legal justification for the arrest and an affirmative defense to the [false imprisonment cause of action]” … , the issue of probable cause is “generally a question of fact to be decided by the jury, and should ‘be decided by the court only where there is no real dispute as to the facts or the proper inferences to be drawn surrounding the arrest’ ” … . Thomas v Niagara Frontier Tr. Auth., 2025 NY Slip Op 02433, Fourth Dept 4-25-25

Practice Point: Consult this decision for an analysis of “negligent use of excessive force,” “false arrest,” and “unlawful imprisonment” causes of action at the summary-judgment stage, in the face of conflicting evidence.​

 

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