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PLAINTIFFS ALLEGED THE CONTRACT FOR THE PURCHASE OF LAND INCLUDED A PARCEL OF LAND NOT INCLUDED IN THE DEED AND SOUGHT A CORRECTED DEED; PURSUANT TO THE MERGER DOCTRINE, THE CONTRACT AND THE DEED MERGED AT THE CLOSING AND THE PROPERTY DESCRIPTION IN THE DEED IS DEEMED TO REFLECT THE FINAL AGREEMENT OF THE PARTIES (ABSENT FRAUD OR AMBIGUITY IN THE DEED); PLAINTIFFS’ COMPLAINT SHOULD HAVE BEEN DISMISSED (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing Supreme Court, determined, pursuant to the merger doctrine, the contract for the sale of land merged with the deed when the deal was closed. The deed therefore represents the final agreement of the parties. The plaintiff alleged the deed description did not match the description in the contract and demanded that the deed be “corrected” to include an additional parcel of land:

… [W]e agree with defendants that the court erred in denying the motion with respect to the breach of contract and quiet title causes of action. Those causes of action are barred by the merger doctrine. “It is settled law that, where a contract for the sale of land has been executed by a conveyance, the terms of the contract concerning the nature and extent of property conveyed merge into the deed and any inconsistencies between the contract and the deed are to be explained and governed solely by the deed, which is presumed to contain the final agreement of the parties” … . Exceptions to the merger doctrine include “where the parties have expressed their intention that [a] provision shall survive delivery of the deed” … , where the deed is ambiguous with respect to the land conveyed …, and where there exists a valid fraud cause of action … . Pickard v Campbell, 2022 NY Slip Op 04442, Fourth Dept 7-8-22

Practice Point: Any discrepancy between the property as described in a real estate contract and as described in the deed is resolved by the merger doctrine. Absent fraud or ambiguity in the deed, the deed description controls.

 

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THE EVIDENCE OF PHYSICAL INJURY WAS LEGALLY INSUFFICIENT; ASSAULT SECOND CONVICTION REDUCED TO ATTEMPTED ASSAULT SECOND (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reducing defendant’s assault second conviction to attempted assault second, determined the proof o physical injury was not legally sufficient:

… [T]he evidence is legally insufficient to establish that he caused physical injury to the victim by means of a dangerous instrument and thus that the conviction of assault in the second degree is not supported by legally sufficient evidence … . The evidence, viewed in the light most favorable to the People … , establishes that defendant attempted to stab the victim and the two struggled over the knife; however, the victim suffered no more than minor cuts to her hands that did not require bandaging and caused only transient pain … . … [T]he evidence is legally sufficient to establish defendant’s guilt of the lesser included offense of attempted assault in the second degree … . People v Lopez-Sarmiento,2022 NY Slip Op 04493, Fourth Dept 7-8-22

Practice Point: Here the evidence the victim suffered “physical injury” as defined in the Penal Law was deemed legally insufficient. The assault second conviction was reduced to attempted assault second.

 

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PETITIONER SOUGHT TO DEMONSTRATE THAT HIS DECEASED MOTHER DID NOT HAVE THE CAPACITY TO EXECUTE A DOCUMENT DESIGNATING RESPONDENT AS HER AGENT TO CONTROL THE DISPOSITION OF HER REMAINS; PETITIONER SUBMITTED PROOF HIS MOTHER HAD BEEN DIAGNOSED WITH DEMENTIA, BUT DEMENTIA IS NOT THE EQUIVALENT OF INCOMPETENCE OR INCAPACITY; THE PETITION SHOULD HAVE BEEN DISMISSED (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing Supreme Court, held that the petition pursuant to Public Health Law 4201 for a determination concerning the disposition of petitioner’s deceased mother’s remains should have been dismissed. The deceased was also the mother of the respondent in this action. The issue was whether the deceased had the capacity to execute a document designating the respondent as her agent to control the disposition of her remains. The proceeding under the Public Health Law is handled like a motion for summary judgment. Although petitioner demonstrated his mother was diagnosed with dementia in 2014, dementia is not the equivalent of incompetence:

Every dispute relating to the disposition of the remains of a decedent shall be resolved . . . pursuant to a special proceeding” (Public Health Law § 4201 [8]). Upon the return date of the petition in a special proceeding, “[t]he court shall make a summary determination upon the pleadings, papers and admissions to the extent that no triable issues of fact are raised,” and “may make any orders permitted on a motion for summary judgment” (CPLR 409 [b] …). “[E]very hearing of a special proceeding is equivalent to the hearing of a motion for summary judgment” … . …

Even assuming, arguendo, that the heightened contractual capacity standard is applicable in this case … , we conclude that petitioner failed to establish that the decedent was incapable “of comprehending and understanding the nature of the transaction at issue” … .  Although petitioner submitted evidence establishing that the decedent had been diagnosed with dementia in 2014, “there is no presumption that a person suffering from dementia is wholly incompetent” … . “Rather, it must be demonstrated that, because of the affliction, the individual was incompetent at the time of the challenged transaction” … . Here, petitioner failed to set forth any evidence that the decedent was without capacity to execute the designating document in September 2017 … . Matter of Hurlbut v Leo M. Bean Funeral Home, Inc., 2022 NY Slip Op 04439, Fourth Dept 7-8-22

Practice Point: A proceeding pursuant to the Public Health Law to determine the disposition of the remains of a decedent is in the nature of a special proceeding and is handled like a summary judgment motion. Here the petitioner did not raise a question of fact about whether the decedent had the capacity to designate the respondent as her agent to control the disposition of her remains. Proof decedent had been diagnosed with dementia did not raise a question of fact about decedent’s competence or capacity.

 

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PLAINTIFF’S FAILURE TO SCHEDULE A 50-H HEARING AFTER ADJOURNING IT TWICE REQUIRED DISMISSAL OF THE RELEVANT CAUSES OF ACTION IN THIS DEFAMATION SUIT AGAINST A COUNTY EXECUTIVE (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing Supreme Court, determined plaintiff’s failure to schedule a 50-h hearing after adjourning it twice required dismissal (without prejudice) of certain causes of action in this defamation suit against a county executive:

Supreme Court erred in denying the motion insofar as it sought to dismiss the first through fourth causes of action on the ground that plaintiff failed to comply with defendant’s demand for an oral examination pursuant to General Municipal Law § 50-h (1), and we therefore modify the order accordingly. “[A] plaintiff who has not complied with General Municipal Law § 50—h (1) is precluded from maintaining an action against a municipality” … . Here, plaintiff adjourned the examination on two separate occasions and failed to respond to defendant’s subsequent request that she choose from a list of dates when she would be available for examination. Under the circumstances, plaintiff bore the burden of rescheduling the examination … , and because plaintiff failed to reschedule, she was barred by statute from commencing an action … .

“Although compliance with General Municipal Law § 50—h (1) may be excused in ‘exceptional circumstances’ ” … , there were no such circumstances here. Contrary to defendant’s contention, however, the first through fourth causes of action should be dismissed without prejudice … .Landa v Poloncarz, 2022 NY Slip Op 04490, Fourth Dept 7-8-22

Practice Point: Here plaintiff twice adjourned the 50-h hearing and then did not respond to defendant’s attempt to schedule a third. Under those circumstances it was plaintiff’s responsibility to schedule a hearing. Failure to do so required dismissal of the relevant causes of action (without prejudice).

 

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IN THIS DOG-BITE CASE, VETERINARY RECORDS ARE DISCOVERABLE BY SUBPOENA (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, in this dog bite case, determined veterinary records are not protected by Education Law 6714 and are discoverable:

Education Law § 6714 (1) provides that, “[u]pon written request from the owner of an animal which has received treatment from or under the supervision of a veterinarian, such veterinarian shall provide to such owner within a reasonable time period a copy of all records relating to the treatment of such animal. For the purposes of this section, the term ‘records’ shall mean all information concerning or related to the examination or treatment of the animal kept by the veterinarian in the course of his or her practice. A veterinarian may impose a reasonable charge for providing copies of such records. A veterinarian may make available to the owner either the original or a copy of such record or document including x-rays, electrocardiograms and other diagnostic tests and may impose a reasonable fee for the reproduction of such copies.”

Nothing in the plain language of that statute prohibits a veterinarian from providing a copy of treatment records pursuant to a subpoena. Had the legislature intended to create such an exemption, it could have done so using language similar to that found in Education Law § 6527 (3), which provides that “records relating to performance of a medical or a quality assurance review function . . . shall [not] be subject to disclosure under article thirty-one of the [CPLR] except as hereinafter provided or as provided by any other provision of law” … . Ashley M. v Marcinkowski, 2022 NY Slip Op 04437, Fourth Dept 7-8-22

Practice Point: Pursuant to Education Law 6714, veterinary records in this dog-bite case are discoverable by subpoena.

 

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DEFENDANTS DID NOT DEMONSTRATE THEY DID NOT CREATE OR HAVE CONSTRUCTIVE KNOWLEDGE OF THE PUDDLE ON THE FLOOR WHERE PLAINTIFF SLIPPED AND FELL; DEFENDANTS’ MOTION FOR SUMMARY JUDGMENT SHOULD NOT HAVE BEEN GRANTED (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing (modifying) Supreme Court, determined defendants (Niagara County Jail and County Sheriff) did not demonstrate they did not create or have constructive notice of the puddle on the floor where plaintiff slipped and fell:

… [D]efendants failed to establish that they did not create the dangerous condition and thus that the court erred in granting the motion with respect to that claim, and we modify the order accordingly … . Defendants submitted evidence that adult visitors and inmates were not allowed to bring drinks to the visitation room, but correction officers, at least three of whom were in the room during visits, were allowed to have drinks in the room. Defendants did not submit evidence that the correction officers in the room did not create the puddle of water on the floor. Although defendants submitted evidence that child visitors were allowed at the time to bring drinks in bottles or sippy cups, they did not submit evidence that any children were in the visitation room that morning before plaintiff entered the room. …

Defendants submitted evidence that employees performed safety inspections of the visitation room, including looking for slipping hazards on the floor, on a routine basis. In particular, the room was inspected before the first visit, throughout the day, and at the end of a shift. Defendants submitted evidence that a correction officer inspected the room at 7:45 a.m. before the first group of visitors arrived at 8:30 a.m. Plaintiff was one of the second group of visitors that day and entered the visitation room at approximately 9:30 a.m. We conclude that the reasonableness of defendants’ inspection practices and whether the dangerous condition existed for a sufficient length of time prior to the accident to permit defendants’ employees to discover and remedy it are issues for a jury to determine … , and defendants failed to establish as a matter of law that they did not have constructive notice of the dangerous condition … . Propst v Niagara County Jail, 2022 NY Slip Op 04486, Fourth Dept 7-8-22

Practice Point: To warrant summary judgment in a slip and fall case, a defendant must show it did not create or have notice of the condition, here a puddle on the floor, which caused plaintiff to fall. The absence of constructive notice is usually demonstrated by an inspection of the area close in time to the fall. Here the defendants presented evidence of an inspection an hour and 45 minutes before the fall, which was deemed to raise a question of fact on constructive notice for the jury.

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THE QUALIFIED DOMESTIC RELATION ORDER (QDRO) AS DESCRIBED IN THE STIPULATION OF SETTLEMENT INCORPORATED BUT NOT MERGED INTO THE JUDGMENT OF DIVORCE CANNOT BE MODIFIED BY THE COURT; NO APPEAL LIES OF RIGHT FROM A QDRO, AN APPLICATION FOR LEAVE TO APPEAL MUST BE MADE (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing Supreme Court, determined the qualified domestic relations order (QDRO) should not have been modified by the court because the stipulation of settlement, which was incorporated but not merged into the judgment of divorce, controls. The Fourth Department noted that no appeal lies of right from a QRDO but it treated the notice of appeal as an application for leave to appeal and granted the application:

A stipulation of settlement that is incorporated but not merged into a judgment of divorce “is a contract subject to the principles of contract construction and interpretation” … . Where such an agreement is clear and unambiguous, the intent of the parties must be gleaned from the language used in the stipulation of settlement and not from extrinsic evidence … , and the agreement in that instance ” ‘must be enforced according to the plain meaning of its terms’ ” … . “A proper QDRO obtained pursuant to a stipulation of settlement can convey only those rights to which the parties stipulated as a basis for the judgment” … . “An alternative result would undermine litigants’ freedom of contract by allowing QDROs to create new rights—or litigants to generate new claims—unexpressed in the settlement stipulation” … . Thus, “a court cannot issue a QDRO encompassing rights not provided in the underlying stipulation . . . , or one that is more expansive than the stipulation” … . Gay v Gay, 2022 NY Slip Op 04480, Fourth Dept 7-8-22

Practice Point: A qualified domestic relations order (QDRO) as described in a stipulation of settlement incorporated but not merged into the judgment of divorce cannot be modified by the court. No appeal lies of right from a QDRO, an application for permission to appeal must be made.

 

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CONFLICTING EXPERT OPINIONS PRECLUDED DISMISSAL OF MEDICAL MALPRACTICE CAUSES OF ACTION STEMMING THE ALLEGED PREMATURE DISCHARGE OF PLAINTIFF FROM EMERGENCY CARE AFTER SHE EXPERIENCED SYMPTOMS OF A STROKE (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing (modifying) Supreme Court, determined plaintiff’s medical malpractice causes of action against the doctor who discharged her from emergency care and the hospital should not have been dismissed because the expert affidavits presented conflicting opinions. Plaintiff experienced symptoms consistent with a stroke and went to the hospital. An MRI was done but plaintiff was released before a final review of the MRI. Evidence of a stroke was ultimately found on the MRI. Plaintiff’s expert opined that the event which caused plaintiff to go to the hospital was a transient ischemic attack (TIA), not a stroke, and that the stroke occurred at the hospital about when the MRI was performed:

… [B]y submitting the affidavit of their expert, [plaintiffs] raised an issue of fact on the issue whether Dr. Kandel deviated from the standard of care … . Dr. Kandel permitted plaintiff to leave the hospital before her brain MRI had undergone a final review by a neuroradiologist. Plaintiffs’ expert opined that discharging plaintiff before a final review of the scans was complete constituted a deviation from the standard of care in light of plaintiff’s medical history, which indicated a significant stroke risk.

… [P]laintiffs raised a question of fact with respect to causation … . The hospital defendants relied upon the affirmation of Dr. Kandel’s medical expert, who opined that any alleged negligence is not the proximate cause of plaintiff’s injuries inasmuch as plaintiff suffered a stroke at or before 3 a.m. on October 27, and that the window in which to administer tPA, an anti-clot medication, had closed long before plaintiff arrived at the hospital for treatment approximately 13 hours later. … [P]laintiffs submitted an expert affidavit asserting … that the symptoms plaintiff experienced on the morning of October 27 were the result of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which results in temporary stroke-like symptoms but does not result in a blockage, and that she did not experience the actual blockage until sometime later in the day, around the time of her brain MRI. Plaintiffs’ expert further opined that, had plaintiff stayed at the hospital overnight and had the MRI been read correctly, tPA could have been administered when plaintiff’s new symptoms presented. Clark v Rachfal, 2022 NY Slip Op 04472, Fourth Dept 7-8-22

Practice Point: Conflicting expert opinions preclude summary judgment in medical malpractice actions.

 

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GIVEN WHAT THE INFORMANT TOLD THE POLICE, THE FACT THAT DEFENDANT GRABBED AT HIS WAISTBAND WHEN THE POLICE APPROACHED HIM ON THE STREET PROVIDED REASONABLE SUSPICION THE DEFENDANT HAD A WEAPON AND THEREBY JUSTIFIED PURSUIT; THE DISSENT ARGUED THE INFORMATION FROM THE INFORMANT WAS NOT ENOUGH BY ITSELF AND THE PEOPLE DID NOT PROVE DEFDENDANT GRABBED AT HIS WAISTBAND BEFORE OR AFTER THE CHASE STARTED (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, over a two-justice dissent, determined the police had “reasonable suspicion” to pursue defendant as he fled when the police approached on the street. The defendant discarded a handgun as he fled:

… [P]olice responded to a 911 call that a parolee wanted on an outstanding warrant and who was known to possess guns was a passenger in a certain vehicle. The officers found a vehicle matching the description given by the 911 caller and followed it, losing sight of the vehicle momentarily but then spotting it stopped on a curb with the passenger standing outside the vehicle. As one of the officers exited the police vehicle and began to approach the passenger, the passenger ran away while holding the left side of his waistband and the officer chased after him. …

The court properly determined that the officers had at least an objective, credible reason to approach defendant and request information … . Defendant’s subsequent flight with his hand on his waistband from the approaching officer, combined with the 911 caller’s report about a wanted violent parolee who was potentially armed, and the police officers’ observations confirming the vehicle and suspect descriptions from the 911 call, provided the officers with reasonable suspicion to pursue defendant … .

From the dissent:

The People assert that the court properly determined that the pursuit was justified because, in addition to the information provided by the informant, the arresting officer observed defendant grabbing the front of his pants while running away, as if he had a gun in his waistband. Although defendant’s act of grabbing his waistband increased the degree of suspicion, perhaps even to the level required for pursuit, the evidence at the suppression hearing does not establish whether the arresting officer observed that conduct before or after he gave chase. People v Leonard, 2022 NY Slip Op 04468, Fourth Dept 7-8-22

Practice Point: Coupled with information provided from an informant claiming the defendant had guns and was violent, the defendant’s grabbing at his waistband as the police approached him on the street provided the police with reasonable suspicion the defendant had a weapon, thereby justifying police pursuit when defendant fled. The dissent argued the information from the informant did not provide reasonable suspicion and the People did not prove defendant grabbed at his waistband before he fled.

 

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PLAINTIFF ALLEGED DEFENDANT INSURER BREACHED THE INSURANCE CONTRACT BY FAILING TO PAY THE FULL AMOUNT OF THE COVERAGE; THAT ALLEGATION DOES NOT SUPPORT AN ADDITIONAL CAUSE OF ACTION FOR BREACH OF THE IMPLIED COVENANT OF GOOD FAITH AND FAIR DEALING (FOURTH DEPT).

The Fourth Department, reversing Supreme Court, determined the cause of action for breach of the implied covenant of good faith and fair dealing duplicated the breach of contract cause of action and should have been dismissed. Plaintiff alleged defendant insurer failed to pay her the full amount of the supplemental uninsured motorist (SUM) coverage:

In the context of insurance contracts specifically, the implied covenant of good faith and fair dealing includes a duty on the part of the insurer ” ‘to investigate in good faith and pay covered claims’ ” … “[I]n order to establish a prima facie case of bad faith, the plaintiff must establish that the insurer’s conduct constituted a ‘gross disregard’ of the insured’s interests—that is, a deliberate or reckless failure to place on equal footing the interests of [the] insured with [the] insurer’s own interests” … .

… [T]he allegations in plaintiff’s complaint that defendant violated its duty of good faith and fair dealing are predicated solely upon the claim that defendant failed or refused to pay her the full amount of SUM coverage under the insurance policy, i.e., that defendant had breached the terms of the policy. Consequently, plaintiff failed to state a cause of action for breach of the implied duty of good faith and fair dealing … , and the court should have granted defendant’s motion insofar as it sought to dismiss that cause of action as duplicative of the breach of contract cause of action … . Brown v Erie Ins. Co., 2022 NY Slip Op 04459, Fourth Dept 7-8-22

Practice Point: In the context of an insurance policy, a cause of action for breach of the implied covenant of good faith and fair dealing must be supported by allegations of the insurer’s gross disregard of the insured’s interests, which is not demonstrated by the alleged failure to pay the full amount of the coverage (a simple breach of contract).

 

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